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Subject: RE: [lojban] 2 maths questions
Date: Fri, 7 Jul 2000 16:42:32 +0100
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From: "And Rosta"
Jorge:
> la and cusku di'e
>
> >2. The set of even numbers and the set of integers are both infinite,
> >but how does one express the notion that the latter is bigger, because
> >there are twice as many integers as even numbers?
>
> That erroneous notion can be expressed, for example, as:
>
> lei relmeina'u lei kacna'u cu xadba le ka kaclai
> The even numbers are half the integers in number.
Did you realize that I am trying to formulate a statement that is both
true and expresses this idea?
> >In what property does the set of integers exceed the set of even numbers?
>
> Apparent numerosity?
Something more objective. Jimc mentioned privately that set inclusion
might afford a solution, but it wouldn't generalize to say, the way
multiples of 2 are more 'numerous' than multiples of 5, but the former
don't include the latter.
> >I presume
> >there is a well-known answer to this question, but the best I can
> >do on my own is something along the lines of "frequency" or
> >"distributional density" (within the set of integers/numbers/whatever);
>
> Certainly in any given finite interval (with more than one number
> anyway) the integers outnumber the evens, but not in total.
>
> >if that is the way to go, then how does one actually say it in Lojban?
>
> lei kacna'u lei relmeina'u cu zmadu le ka denmi
Is "denmi" sufficient? Is denmi in the appropriate part of number space a
mathematically sensical notion? Can one analogously express the frequency
of trains as denmi in time?
--And.