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From: Ian Johnson <blindbravado@gmail.com>
Date: Thu, 14 Jul 2016 15:55:58 -0400
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Subject: Re: [lojban-beginners] Is it possible to use be directly followed by bei?
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The grammar won't let you do this, no. I'm not sure what's wrong with {be
fi}, the syllable count is the same...

mi'e la latro'a mu'o

On Thu, Jul 14, 2016 at 12:24 PM, 0x90 <emilwuerfl@gmail.com> wrote:

> Is it possible to use be directly followed by bei, indicating that the
> sumti followed by be is omitted(=zo'e)? I know it is possible to do the
> same with "be fi", but I think it sounds better. I think it should be
> possible since the bei makes it obvious that the one between be and bai was
> elided... However, no of the parsers I tried accepted this.
>
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<div dir=3D"ltr"><div>The grammar won&#39;t let you do this, no. I&#39;m no=
t sure what&#39;s wrong with {be fi}, the syllable count is the same...<br>=
<br></div>mi&#39;e la latro&#39;a mu&#39;o<br></div><div class=3D"gmail_ext=
ra"><br><div class=3D"gmail_quote">On Thu, Jul 14, 2016 at 12:24 PM, 0x90 <=
span dir=3D"ltr">&lt;<a href=3D"mailto:emilwuerfl@gmail.com" target=3D"_bla=
nk">emilwuerfl@gmail.com</a>&gt;</span> wrote:<br><blockquote class=3D"gmai=
l_quote" style=3D"margin:0 0 0 .8ex;border-left:1px #ccc solid;padding-left=
:1ex">Is it possible to use be directly followed by bei, indicating that th=
e sumti followed by be is omitted(=3Dzo&#39;e)? I know it is possible to do=
 the same with &quot;be fi&quot;, but I think it sounds better. I think it =
should be possible since the bei makes it obvious that the one between be a=
nd bai was elided... However, no of the parsers I tried accepted this.<span=
 class=3D"HOEnZb"><font color=3D"#888888"><br>
<br>
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</font></span></blockquote></div><br></div>

<p></p>

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