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Subject: Re: [lojban] Ancient Greek, free word order and the same FA two
  times  in a bridi
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I tend to think that {broda fa ko'a fa ko'e} means more or less the same=20
thing as {ko'a broda .i ko'e broda}, ie making two predications at once or=
=20
'putting two feet into the same boot' (or some similar expression that=20
somebody once used). The (logical, temporal, etc.) connection between the=
=20
first bridi and the second in {ko'a broda .i ko'e broda} would depend on=20
context, wouldn't it? So, can't the meaning of 'double-FA' expressions be=
=20
considered similarly context dependent?

Out of context, I would assume that both statements are to express=20
prepositions held true (by the speaker). So, such 'double-FA' utterances=20
may have sense or not, depending of course on the predication and the=20
arguments involved.

{catlu fe lo melbi tsani fe lo cmalu rirxe fa ko} -> why not
{se jbena fa mi fa do la cmen.} -> probably dissonant =85 also, sorry for t=
he=20
somewhat ka'u disgusting example :/

Hm. This doesn't make much sense, does it?

=B7iesk=B7

Le samedi 4 ao=FBt 2012 21:30:43 UTC+2, Pierre Abbat a =E9crit :
>
> On Saturday 04 August 2012 10:12:18 Luke Bergen wrote:=20
> > This has come up a couple times before.=20
> >=20
> > I don't think it's a matter of "we need to figure out how to do this=20
> > because other languages do it".  I think it's more so a matter of "the=
=20
> > grammar allows this form (fe lo barda cu broda fe lo gerku), we should=
=20
> > probably decide just what it means".=20
>
> Maybe it's good to figure out what this construction means, but I don't=
=20
> think=20
> that, in general, it's wise to assign a meaning to every construction tha=
t=20
> the formal grammar allows. "mi te.u do du ra'o lo gerku pe naku" I=20
> consider=20
> to be ungrammatical on the second level, even though it is grammatical on=
=20
> the=20
> first (the formal grammar).=20
>
> Pierre=20
>
> --=20
> loi mintu se ckaji danlu cu jmaji=20
>

--=20
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I tend to think that {broda fa ko'a fa ko'e} means more or less the same th=
ing as {ko'a broda .i ko'e broda}, ie making two predications at once or 'p=
utting two feet into the same boot' (or some similar expression that somebo=
dy once used). The (logical, temporal, etc.) connection between the first b=
ridi and the second in {ko'a broda .i ko'e broda} would depend on context, =
wouldn't it? So, can't the meaning of 'double-FA' expressions be considered=
 similarly context dependent?<br><br>Out of context, I would assume that bo=
th statements are to express prepositions held true (by the speaker). So, s=
uch 'double-FA' utterances may have sense or not, depending of course on th=
e predication and the arguments involved.<br><br>{catlu fe lo melbi tsani f=
e lo cmalu rirxe fa ko} -&gt; why not<br>{se jbena fa mi fa do la cmen.} -&=
gt; probably dissonant =85 also, sorry for the somewhat ka'u disgusting exa=
mple :/<br><br>Hm. This doesn't make much sense, does it?<br><br>=B7iesk=B7=
<br><br>Le samedi 4 ao=FBt 2012 21:30:43 UTC+2, Pierre Abbat a =E9crit&nbsp=
;:<blockquote class=3D"gmail_quote" style=3D"margin: 0;margin-left: 0.8ex;b=
order-left: 1px #ccc solid;padding-left: 1ex;">On Saturday 04 August 2012 1=
0:12:18 Luke Bergen wrote:
<br>&gt; This has come up a couple times before.
<br>&gt;
<br>&gt; I don't think it's a matter of "we need to figure out how to do th=
is
<br>&gt; because other languages do it". &nbsp;I think it's more so a matte=
r of "the
<br>&gt; grammar allows this form (fe lo barda cu broda fe lo gerku), we sh=
ould
<br>&gt; probably decide just what it means".
<br>
<br>Maybe it's good to figure out what this construction means, but I don't=
 think=20
<br>that, in general, it's wise to assign a meaning to every construction t=
hat=20
<br>the formal grammar allows. "mi te.u do du ra'o lo gerku pe naku" I cons=
ider=20
<br>to be ungrammatical on the second level, even though it is grammatical =
on the=20
<br>first (the formal grammar).
<br>
<br>Pierre
<br>
<br>--=20
<br>loi mintu se ckaji danlu cu jmaji
<br></blockquote>

<p></p>

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