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Date: Sat, 18 Aug 2012 11:36:33 +0100
From: And Rosta <and.rosta@gmail.com>
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Subject: Re: [lojban] Re: Zombie
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Jonathan Jones, On 18/08/2012 01:28:
> On Fri, Aug 17, 2012 at 5:31 PM, And Rosta <and.rosta@gmail.com <mailto:a=
nd.rosta@gmail.com>> wrote:
>     Jonathan Jones, On 17/08/2012 21:19:
>
>         It shouldn't be difficult at in Lojban. {ii} is a diphthong
>         pronounced "YEE", {i} is a vowel pronounced "EE".
>
>
>     ...and that's easy only for native anglophones, helped by the diphtho=
ngal character of "EE" in most accents.
>
>
> I highly doubt that. The consonant-y sound appears in a whole variety of =
languages.While Japanese doesn't have "yi", it does have =E3=82=84"ya", =E3=
=82=86"yu", and =E3=82=88"yo", which are distinctive sounds from =E3=81=82"=
a", =E3=81=86"u", and =E3=81=8A"o".

You transmute healthy skepticism into pigheadedness. Why the gap at "yi"? W=
hat is the phonetic difference between {i} and {ii} and why do you suppose =
it to be easy?

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