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iesk, On 18/08/2012 14:44:
> Given that Lojban is 'complete' (baselined) and Lojban phonotactics don't=
 forbid {ii} in that position, I guess this exchangue of opinions is about =
the phonaesthetics of a word like {dzombii}, right? Otherwise I can=E2=80=
=99t see why the relative difficulties speakers of various linguistic backg=
rounds might have pronouncing it could be relevant.
>
> After all, Lojban just isn=E2=80=99t very easy to pronounce. (On the cont=
rary, I find it surprisingly difficult.)

Why is the relative ease or difficulty of distinguishing {ii} and {uu} from=
 {i} and {u} not relevant?

--And.

>
> iesk
>
> Le samedi 18 ao=C3=BBt 2012 12:36:33 UTC+2, And Rosta a =C3=A9crit :
>
>     Jonathan Jones, On 18/08/2012 01:28:
>      > On Fri, Aug 17, 2012 at 5:31 PM, And Rosta <and....@gmail.com <mai=
lto:and....@gmail.com>> wrote:
>      > Jonathan Jones, On 17/08/2012 21:19:
>      >
>      > It shouldn't be difficult at in Lojban. {ii} is a diphthong
>      > pronounced "YEE", {i} is a vowel pronounced "EE".
>      >
>      >
>      > ...and that's easy only for native anglophones, helped by the diph=
thongal character of "EE" in most accents.
>      >
>      >
>      > I highly doubt that. The consonant-y sound appears in a whole vari=
ety of languages.While Japanese doesn't have "yi", it does have =E3=82=84"y=
a", =E3=82=86"yu", and =E3=82=88"yo", which are distinctive sounds from =E3=
=81=82"a", =E3=81=86"u", and =E3=81=8A"o".
>
>     You transmute healthy skepticism into pigheadedness. Why the gap at "=
yi"? What is the phonetic difference between {i} and {ii} and why do you su=
ppose it to be easy?
>
> --
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