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If [p=C9=9B.i] =3D [p=C9=9Bi], what about cmavo stress rules? According to =
CLL 3.3 a=20
comma is a syllable break, but according to LBG 3.9 a diphthong always=20
counts as one syllable. On what syllable would [p=C9=9B.i] be stressed, giv=
en=20
that [p=C9=9Bi] only has one syllable to stress?

On Thursday, September 30, 2010 8:01:20 AM UTC-4, Pierre Abbat wrote:
>
> On Thursday 30 September 2010 02:35:15 Krzysztof Sobolewski wrote:
> > {ei} is a diphtong; we don't have "official" diphtongs in Polish, but t=
he
> > difference between "pei" (for {pe'i}) and "pej" (for {pei}) is very=20
> clear.
> > When I want to be really precise when I'm writing "phonetically" using
> > Polish ortography, I write "pe-i" for {pe'i} (assuming silent {'}, of
> > course).
>
> In Lojban [p=C9=9Bi] and [p=C9=9B.i] are the same word, while [p=C9=9Bhi]=
 is a different=20
> word. Whether the first two would be the same in Polish is irrelevant.=20
> Languages differ in how they divide sound space.
>
> Another example, from Romance languages: I once was talking about the=20
> jatob=C3=A1=20
> (fr:courbaril, es:guapinol, jbo:kurbarile), which is an ingredient in an=
=20
> herbal medicine I take, with a Brazilian, who deals in woods, including=
=20
> jatob=C3=A1. I said [=CA=92ato'ba]. He corrected me: it's [=CA=92at=C9=94=
'ba]. In French, as=20
> far=20
> as I know, [=C9=94] occurs only in closed syllables (a minimal pair=20
> is "saute/sotte"), while in Spanish there is no distinction between [=C9=
=94]=20
> and=20
> [o]. (The English realization of [=C9=94] and [o] is different, so even t=
hough=20
> English is my first language, I relied on French, my second, when speakin=
g=20
> Portuguese.)
>
> Pierre
> --=20
> The Black Garden on the Mountain is not on the Black Mountain.
>
>

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If [p=C9=9B.i] =3D [p=C9=9Bi], what about cmavo stress rules? According to =
CLL 3.3 a comma is a syllable break, but according to LBG 3.9 a diphthong a=
lways counts as one syllable. On what syllable would [p=C9=9B.i] be stresse=
d, given that [p=C9=9Bi] only has one syllable to stress?<br><br>On Thursda=
y, September 30, 2010 8:01:20 AM UTC-4, Pierre Abbat wrote:<blockquote clas=
s=3D"gmail_quote" style=3D"margin: 0;margin-left: 0.8ex;border-left: 1px #c=
cc solid;padding-left: 1ex;">On Thursday 30 September 2010 02:35:15 Krzyszt=
of Sobolewski wrote:<br>&gt; {ei} is a diphtong; we don't have "official" d=
iphtongs in Polish, but the<br>&gt; difference between "pei" (for {pe'i}) a=
nd "pej" (for {pei}) is very clear.<br>&gt; When I want to be really precis=
e when I'm writing "phonetically" using<br>&gt; Polish ortography, I write =
"pe-i" for {pe'i} (assuming silent {'}, of<br>&gt; course).<p>In Lojban [p=
=C9=9Bi] and [p=C9=9B.i] are the same word, while [p=C9=9Bhi] is a differen=
t <br>word. Whether the first two would be the same in Polish is irrelevant=
. <br>Languages differ in how they divide sound space.</p><p>Another exampl=
e, from Romance languages: I once was talking about the jatob=C3=A1 <br>(fr=
:courbaril, es:guapinol, jbo:kurbarile), which is an ingredient in an <br>h=
erbal medicine I take, with a Brazilian, who deals in woods, including <br>=
jatob=C3=A1. I said [=CA=92ato'ba]. He corrected me: it's [=CA=92at=C9=94'b=
a]. In French, as far <br>as I know, [=C9=94] occurs only in closed syllabl=
es (a minimal pair <br>is "saute/sotte"), while in Spanish there is no dist=
inction between [=C9=94] and <br>[o]. (The English realization of [=C9=94] =
and [o] is different, so even though <br>English is my first language, I re=
lied on French, my second, when speaking <br>Portuguese.)</p><p>Pierre<br>-=
- <br>The Black Garden on the Mountain is not on the Black Mountain.<br></p=
><p></p><p></p></blockquote>

<p></p>

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