Date: Sat, 6 Apr 2013 07:51:26 -0700 (PDT)
From: iesk <pa.fae@gmx.de>
To: lojban@googlegroups.com
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References: <515C66D0.60501@gmx.de>
 <5160157C.6020401@gmx.de>
Subject: Re: [lojban] Isomorphism in lo cmalu noltru
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I am undecided on which way I would prefer. Option b) is probably clearer t=
han option a). And 'forethought {lu}/{li'u}' *is* a sensible interpretation=
 of the function of those dashes.

However:
Lojban grammar does (as far as I know) *not* provide a way to indicate voic=
e inflection [voice modulation? English is an L2 to me] in written text. Is=
omorphism has its limits. I'm quite sure that that has been clear from the =
beginning.

The assumption

(LASELPAhI:)>It is, but it's not Lojban. Text and speech is supposed to mat=
ch.

could easily be a first step in the wrong direction---leading to the 'Lojba=
n has to be spoken in a monotonous computer voice' fallacy, couldn't it?

(The fallacy I have in mind is:
Lojban has a.v. isomorphism.
Lojban has no voice-modulation cmavo or whatever.
Thus, Lojban is to be read without voice modulation.)

I don't see why reading (interpreting) the text with appropriate voice infl=
ection would't be a Lojban performance. And that, I opine, could be the mos=
t pleasing kind of performance, to the listener.

By the way:
If we do take isomorphism (in the limited-thus-sensible sense) seriously, d=
on't we then have to ask what it means that the text *doesn't* indicate spe=
aker change by means of {lu}/{li'u} (while it could as well do so)? I mean,=
 supposing of course that the translator did that on purpose and not by ove=
rsight, it could be a stylistically slightly weird text---like an English t=
ext without punctuation.

--=20
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