Date: Tue, 14 Jan 2014 01:30:07 -0800 (PST)
From: iesk <pa.fae@gmx.de>
To: lojban@googlegroups.com
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Subject: Re: [lojban] completely off-topic
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>That's ordinarily true, aionys, but only insofar as it's true as "ko'a bla=
bi" is badly formed because ko'a has not been heretofore assigned with a go=
i. And yet, people (not me) use those kind of constructions a lot. If I wer=
e to just say "by. rajcla nixli", you should probably say "by ki'a?" or "ma=
 goi by go'i". But nonetheless,you would probably rightly assume that "by" =
was standing in for something, that was not the letter itself

I interpret a bare letteral (or ko'a etc.) which has not been defined (expl=
icitly with {goi} or by using the word it stands for in full) as I interpre=
t a "he" or "it" or "she" in English which has no (context-)defined referen=
t. It's grammatical but kind of a placeholder.

>I disagree with iesk that we would ever assume it is standing in for a ini=
tally-glottally-stopped word. Only alphabetics take that assumption).

I said exactly that. Sorry if it was unclear. So, agreed, of course!

>So usually, if I meant the letter itself, Iwould use "me'o by"=20

Yep.

>Nonetheless, there is no reason to not assume that "denpa bu" could not in=
 fact be implicitly standing in for me'o denpabu, if there were no contradi=
ctory assignments=20

Agreed.

>So, to summarize, in ".i.e'ucai ko cmima lo pilno be denpa bu .i doi.luk. =
mi patfu do zo'o" "denpa bu" is indeed an anaphora with no antecedent, whic=
h we can assume in this case is referring to me'o denpa bu.

Fine.

--=20
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