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Date: Sun, 26 Jan 2014 13:32:40 +0100
From: selpa'i <seladwa@gmx.de>
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Subject: Re: [lojban] [oz] {ka'e} vs. {su'o mu'ei}
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la .asiz. cu cusku di'e
> You use {mu'ei} exactly once in the whole translation:
>    {no da po'u na'e bo lo tolv=C4=97rnu be mu'u mi cu su'o mu'ei p=C4=8Dn=
si lo nu
> b=C4=81tci lo tai cm=C4=81lu} (lion speaking)
>
> Is it purely stylistic (more syllables can be more emphatic, or it may
> be the lion's style), or do you by any chance make a distinction between
> {ka'e} and  {su'o mu'ei}, or between {bi'ai} and {ro mu'ei}?

I know that {su'o mu'ei} and {ka'e} are suppposed to be the same, but I=20
think I do see a difference in emphasis. In this case the difference is=20
between "nobody would ever" and "nobody can", sort of. For me:

ka'e X broda =3D=3D lo nu broda cu cumki X

So it's a much simpler statement than "there exists at least one=20
possible world where broda happens" even if they are truth funtionally=20
the same.

Replacing {su'o mu'ei} with {ka'e} in the Oz sentence makes it sound=20
different to me for some reason. It probably shouldn't. Or maybe they=20
*aren't* equivalent. I'm not sure. All I know is that I don't seem to=20
use them interchangeably myself.

mi'e la selpa'i mu'o

--=20
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