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Date: Sun, 26 Jan 2014 10:48:24 -0200
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Subject: Re: [lojban] [oz] {ka'e} vs. {su'o mu'ei}
From: =?ISO-8859-1?Q?Felipe_Gon=E7alves_Assis?= <felipeg.assis@gmail.com>
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Ok.

I didn't understand the link you sent. Is it the correct?


On 26 January 2014 10:32, selpa'i <seladwa@gmx.de> wrote:

> la .asiz. cu cusku di'e
>
>> You use {mu'ei} exactly once in the whole translation:
>>    {no da po'u na'e bo lo tolv=C4=97rnu be mu'u mi cu su'o mu'ei p=C4=8D=
nsi lo nu
>> b=C4=81tci lo tai cm=C4=81lu} (lion speaking)
>>
>>
>> Is it purely stylistic (more syllables can be more emphatic, or it may
>> be the lion's style), or do you by any chance make a distinction between
>> {ka'e} and  {su'o mu'ei}, or between {bi'ai} and {ro mu'ei}?
>>
>
> I know that {su'o mu'ei} and {ka'e} are suppposed to be the same, but I
> think I do see a difference in emphasis. In this case the difference is
> between "nobody would ever" and "nobody can", sort of. For me:
>
> ka'e X broda =3D=3D lo nu broda cu cumki X
>
> So it's a much simpler statement than "there exists at least one possible
> world where broda happens" even if they are truth funtionally the same.
>
> Replacing {su'o mu'ei} with {ka'e} in the Oz sentence makes it sound
> different to me for some reason. It probably shouldn't. Or maybe they
> *aren't* equivalent. I'm not sure. All I know is that I don't seem to use
> them interchangeably myself.
>
> mi'e la selpa'i mu'o
>
>
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<div dir=3D"ltr">Ok.<br><br>I didn&#39;t understand the link you sent. Is i=
t the correct?<br></div><div class=3D"gmail_extra"><br><br><div class=3D"gm=
ail_quote">On 26 January 2014 10:32, selpa&#39;i <span dir=3D"ltr">&lt;<a h=
ref=3D"mailto:seladwa@gmx.de" target=3D"_blank">seladwa@gmx.de</a>&gt;</spa=
n> wrote:<br>
<blockquote class=3D"gmail_quote" style=3D"margin:0 0 0 .8ex;border-left:1p=
x #ccc solid;padding-left:1ex">la .asiz. cu cusku di&#39;e<br>
<blockquote class=3D"gmail_quote" style=3D"margin:0 0 0 .8ex;border-left:1p=
x #ccc solid;padding-left:1ex"><div class=3D"im">
You use {mu&#39;ei} exactly once in the whole translation:<br></div>
=C2=A0 =C2=A0{no da po&#39;u na&#39;e bo lo tolv=C4=97rnu be mu&#39;u mi cu=
 su&#39;o mu&#39;ei p=C4=8Dnsi lo nu<br>
b=C4=81tci lo tai cm=C4=81lu} (lion speaking)<div class=3D"im"><br>
<br>
Is it purely stylistic (more syllables can be more emphatic, or it may<br>
be the lion&#39;s style), or do you by any chance make a distinction betwee=
n<br>
{ka&#39;e} and =C2=A0{su&#39;o mu&#39;ei}, or between {bi&#39;ai} and {ro m=
u&#39;ei}?<br>
</div></blockquote>
<br>
I know that {su&#39;o mu&#39;ei} and {ka&#39;e} are suppposed to be the sam=
e, but I think I do see a difference in emphasis. In this case the differen=
ce is between &quot;nobody would ever&quot; and &quot;nobody can&quot;, sor=
t of. For me:<br>

<br>
ka&#39;e X broda =3D=3D lo nu broda cu cumki X<br>
<br>
So it&#39;s a much simpler statement than &quot;there exists at least one p=
ossible world where broda happens&quot; even if they are truth funtionally =
the same.<br>
<br>
Replacing {su&#39;o mu&#39;ei} with {ka&#39;e} in the Oz sentence makes it =
sound different to me for some reason. It probably shouldn&#39;t. Or maybe =
they *aren&#39;t* equivalent. I&#39;m not sure. All I know is that I don=
9;t seem to use them interchangeably myself.<br>

<br>
mi&#39;e la selpa&#39;i mu&#39;o<div class=3D"HOEnZb"><div class=3D"h5"><br=
>
<br>
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</div></div></blockquote></div><br></div>

<p></p>

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