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Date: Fri, 7 Feb 2014 10:53:13 -0500
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Subject: Re: [lojban] [oz] {ny poi cy ke'a falcru}
From: Michael Turniansky <mturniansky@gmail.com>
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  I don't think I understand your question.  Why wouldn't ny refer to "lo
narge"?  That is the antecedent (from "lo narge cu tai cmalu").  Or, are
you perhaps meaning to refer to the SECOND use of "ny", and asserting it
should now be reassigned to meaning "ny poi cy ke'a falcru"?

       --gejyspa


On Sun, Jan 26, 2014 at 10:14 AM, Felipe Gon=C3=A7alves Assis <
felipeg.assis@gmail.com> wrote:

> The full passage is:
>   {lo n=C3=A0rge cu tai cm=C3=A0lu .i ja'e bo ny poi cy ke'a f=C3=A0lcru =
cu ja'a ru'e se
> zm=C3=A0mei ny poi cy ke'a p=C3=B9nji lo l=C3=A0nka}
>
> Here, {ny poi cy ke'a falcru}, clearly means something equivalent to
> either {lo narge poi cy ke'a falcru} or to what I would write as {lo me n=
y
> poi cy ke'a falcru}. To me, an anaphoric expression always has exactly th=
e
> same referent as the antecedent. What do you think?
>
> doi la selpa'i, what is your idea behind this usage? Do you think the
> anaphora just occurs at the superficial textual level, so that {ny} would
> be equivalent to {lo narge}? Or do you think that {ko'a poi broda} is
> meaningful in general, so that {ko'a} can in effect refer to a strict par=
t
> of ko'a, i.e, as in {lo me ko'a}?
>
> mu'o
> mi'e .asiz.
>
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<div dir=3D"ltr">=C2=A0 I don&#39;t think I understand your question. =C2=
=A0Why wouldn&#39;t ny refer to &quot;lo narge&quot;? =C2=A0That is the ant=
ecedent (from &quot;lo narge cu tai cmalu&quot;). =C2=A0Or, are you perhaps=
 meaning to refer to the SECOND use of &quot;ny&quot;, and asserting it sho=
uld now be reassigned to meaning &quot;ny poi cy ke&#39;a falcru&quot;?=C2=
=A0<div>
<br></div><div>=C2=A0 =C2=A0 =C2=A0 =C2=A0--gejyspa</div><div><br></div></d=
iv><div class=3D"gmail_extra"><br><br><div class=3D"gmail_quote">On Sun, Ja=
n 26, 2014 at 10:14 AM, Felipe Gon=C3=A7alves Assis <span dir=3D"ltr">&lt;<=
a href=3D"mailto:felipeg.assis@gmail.com" target=3D"_blank">felipeg.assis@g=
mail.com</a>&gt;</span> wrote:<br>
<blockquote class=3D"gmail_quote" style=3D"margin:0 0 0 .8ex;border-left:1p=
x #ccc solid;padding-left:1ex"><div dir=3D"ltr"><div><div><div>The full pas=
sage is:<br>=C2=A0 {lo n=C3=A0rge cu tai cm=C3=A0lu .i ja&#39;e bo ny poi c=
y ke&#39;a f=C3=A0lcru cu ja&#39;a ru&#39;e se zm=C3=A0mei ny poi cy ke&#39=
;a p=C3=B9nji lo l=C3=A0nka}<br>
<br>Here, {ny poi cy ke&#39;a falcru}, clearly means=20
something equivalent to either {lo narge poi cy ke&#39;a falcru} or to what=
 I
 would write as {lo me ny poi cy ke&#39;a falcru}. To me, an anaphoric expr=
ession always has exactly the same referent as the antecedent. What do you =
think?<br><br></div>doi la selpa&#39;i, what is your idea behind this usage=
? Do you think the anaphora just occurs at the superficial textual level, s=
o that {ny} would be equivalent to {lo narge}? Or do you think that {ko&#39=
;a poi broda} is meaningful in general, so that {ko&#39;a} can in effect re=
fer to a strict part of ko&#39;a, i.e, as in {lo me ko&#39;a}?<br>

<br></div>mu&#39;o<br>mi&#39;e .asiz.<span class=3D"HOEnZb"><font color=3D"=
#888888"><br></font></span></div></div><span class=3D"HOEnZb"><font color=
=3D"#888888">

<p></p>

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</font></span></blockquote></div><br></div>

<p></p>

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