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Date: Wed, 17 Dec 2008 10:58:51 -0300
From: "=?ISO-8859-1?Q?Jorge_Llamb=EDas?=" <jjllambias@gmail.com>
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Subject: [lojban] Re: [lojban-beginners] Re: About the negators
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On Wed, Dec 17, 2008 at 10:45 AM, Daniel Brockman
<daniel@gointeractive.se> wrote:
>
> Spontaneous thoughts: Since {su'o da broda gi'e na brode} ought (?) to
> mean {su'o da broda gi'e nai brode}, then {su'o da na broda gi'e brode}
> ought to mean {su'o da broda na gi'e brode}.

I think (though I could be wrong) that everybody agrees with that.

The question is how does the scope of {na} work (in any of those
versions) with respect to the scope of {su'o}. In other words:

(1) su'o da na broda gi'u brode

(2) su'o da na broda

Do (1) and (2) have the same truth value?

mu'o mi'e xorxes


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