Date: Fri, 28 Nov 1997 04:38:31 -0500 (EST) Message-Id: <199711280938.EAA20274@locke.ccil.org> Reply-To: Logical Language Group Sender: Lojban list From: Logical Language Group Subject: Re: What the *%$@ does "nu" mean? X-To: a.rosta@UCLAN.AC.UK X-cc: lojban@cuvmb.cc.columbia.edu To: John Cowan Status: OR X-Mozilla-Status: 0011 Content-Length: 1131 X-From-Space-Date: Fri Nov 28 04:38:49 1997 X-From-Space-Address: LOJBAN@CUVMB.CC.COLUMBIA.EDU >> >Also, it makes sense to say {mi nitcu lo nu broda} if and only >> >if it does not make sense to say {mi nitcu lo fasnu} >> >> Since the statement "lo nu broda cu fasnu" works, then lo nu broda and lo >> fasnu have identical features semantically. > >Come on! That's bollocks. "lo nanmu cu remna" works, but "lo nanmu" >and "lo remna" don't have identical features. I'm obvsiously missing some point here. If you do not claim that the two (lo nu broda and lo fasnu) are identical semantically, then how come you can claim the biconditional? maybe its the hour of the night. >I think you're suffering from Having-to-answer-too-much-email-in- >too-little-time Syndrome. Maybe it is that too. Probably I should drop the discussion since I never seem to convince anyone of anything and even Cowan says I make no sense. Your reactions suggest that we are close to getting back to the ancient discussion about needing lo tanxe that led to enormous largely pointless volume 2 years ago (indeed it was 2 years ago Thanksgiving that we had something like 200 postings in a single day on the list or some similar nonsense). lojbab