Date:  Tue, 17 Feb 1998 17:39:12 -0500 (EST)
Message-Id: <199802172239.RAA02127@locke.ccil.org>
Reply-To: Rob Zook <rzook@INFORMIX.COM>
Sender: Lojban list <LOJBAN%CUVMB.bitnet@CUNYVM.CUNY.EDU>
From: Rob Zook <rzook@INFORMIX.COM>
Subject:      Re: more epistemic perversity
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To: John Cowan <cowan@LOCKE.CCIL.ORG>
In-Reply-To:  <199802160150.RAA08122@gateway.informix.com>
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At 10:36 PM 2/15/98 -0300, Jorge J. Llamb=EDas wrote:
<snip>
>For example, if John dreams that you have only one child, you will
>claim:
>
>    la djan djuno le du'u mi rirni pa da kei fo le nu senva
>    John knows that I have only one child because he had a dream.
>
>It's definitely not how I would say it.

But it's not really relavent how you would say it, but how the
imaginary John would say it. Perhaps this John beleives that all
his dreams fortell the future or contain information about non-
dream world events. In that context, the sentance makes perfect
sense.


> >The typical x4 for MOST people discussing knowledge is not a subjective
>one.
>>Typical !=3D default though, since there are people who take faith, or
>certain
>>assumptions, as being valid epistemologies, and I do not want Lojban's
>djuno
>>to exclude them.
>
>Does English's "know" exclude those people? I find it hard to believe=20
>that a given word in a language would exclude people for believing=20
>something or other.

But know does not have only one meaning, while djuno only has one
meaning. Which meaning of "know" do you mean here?


Rob Z.





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