X-Digest-Num: 267 Message-ID: <44114.267.1445.959273825@eGroups.com> Date: Tue, 26 Oct 1999 14:32:51 PDT From: "Jorge Llambias" Subject: Re: 3 dogs, 2 men, many arguments X-Yahoo-Message-Num: 1445 Content-Length: 3005 Lines: 83 la xod cusku di'e >I no longer understand this notation. Let me try: > >3x 2y F(x, y) ci da poi gerku re de poi nanmu zo'u da batci de >G(x) = 2y F(x, y) broda cei re de poi nanmu zo'u da batci de > >Now, by "G only depends on x " you mean broda has no place for da? It has no place for de actually, because broda would be a one-place predicate. (Your second line is not grammatical Lojban, but I think I understand what you mean. The first line is a full expression, a sentence, the second line is only meant to be the definition of a predicate, G(x), it doesn´t state anything.) >Why is "formula reduction" a value? Is that the way we think and speak? I don't know and I don't think anybody knows just what is the way we think and speak. What I called "formula reduction" is just one way to analyse what we say. >As for "collectively", what do you mean? Masses where a single member's >validity is enough? No, that is definitely not my view of masses. For example, when I say that a mass of three dogs weighs 20 kg I don't mean that only one of the dogs may weigh that. I mean that they weigh 20kg as a whole. >Where if at least one of the 3 dogs bites only one of >the 2 men, the sentence is true? No, that's not what I mean. I mean that it would be under extremely rare circumstances that we have a situation where there are three dogs and two men such that each of the dogs bites each of the men. >How would you state my sample sentence "There exist exactly 3 dogs, and >there exist exactly 2 men, such that: every dog bites every man at least >once." One of the suggestions in another round of this discussion was {ci da poi gerku e re de poi nanmu zo'u da batci de}. This is grammatical, but not with an officially sanctioned meaning, as far as I know. >Do you really think this is an unlikely sentence to utter? Extremely unlikely. I don't think I have ever been in such a situation, nor remember anyone ever telling me about something like that. >In these sentences we are defining a relationship between every element of >some sets. The prenex declares the composition of the sets; the bridi >defines the relationship. Many bridi are not relationships between all members of one set and all members of another set. >Why should there be another, implicit relationship between the sets? And >why handle sets enumerated by ro and >su'o differently? {ro} and {su'o} do not enumerate the sets. In fact all sets have ro members, so ro is useless as an enumerator. In their function as quantifiers, numbers are not primarily enumerating either. I'm sure I'm using all the wrong technical words, but if you don't agree that the order in which ro and su'o appear is of great significance, then we have a much more basic disagreement than with numbers. {ro da prami su'o de} (everyone loves at least someone) does not mean the same as {su'o de se prami ro da} (at least someone is loved by everyone). This is basic logic, not particularly Lojbanic. co'o mi'e xorxes