As to why 'ku', I couldn't say (running out of good terminals?= ), but as to why not 'ku' in 'mi ba citka lo plise', that's because it is w= here it belongs (in Lojban, not in Logic, but that is another whole story)(= cf 'na'). When it moves away , it needs a mark to show that it is not= now functioning as a preposition or whatever, but in its home function, th= ough not at home. It may be, in fact, as suggested, that the 'ku' is = there marks the end of a null term, to indicate that this is not being used= with a term at all. (Weird, but then 'ba' does need a 'ku' -- I thin= k -- when in prenex, its logical home.)

From: Luke Bergen <lukeabergen@gmail.com&g= t;
To: lojban@googlegro= ups.com
Sent: Sat, Janu= ary 15, 2011 6:08:29 PM
Subject: Re: [lojban] question about ku

This is the meat of my question. My initial guess was that {ba} expec= ts a sumti as is the case with {mi citka lo plise ba lo nu mi xagji} and th= at putting it before the selbri or terminating it with {ku} is just a way o= f saying "forget that sumti, it's zo'e or something". But the only wa= y of getting that is for there to be an implicit {lo} OR {ku} is special in= that it terminates tags like LE, BAI, BA, (and FA?). But that doesn'= t seem right because then why wouldn't the ku be necessary in the case of {= mi ba [ku] citka lo plise}?

I wish I understood PEG better.

On Sat, Jan 15, 2011 at 6:53 PM, Ian Johnson <blindbravado@gmail.com> wrote:

Still no idea why= ku can terminate two completely unrelated selma'o, though.

mu'o mi'= e .latros.

On Sat, Jan 15, 2011 at 6:= 11 PM, Luke Bergen <lukeabergen@gmail.com> wrote:

I don't know why it just occurred to me but... what exactl= y is "ku" terminatiging in "baku mi citka"? Is there an implicit "lo"= so that parsers see this as /really/ being something like "baloku mi citka= "? Or is ku just able to terminate "ba"? I didn't know that BA = had a terminator... either way something feels strange.

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