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Subject: Re: [lojban-beginners] Question about {roda}
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On Wed, Feb 23, 2011 at 2:33 PM, Michael Turniansky
<mturniansky@gmail.com> wrote:
> But certainly, why can't "le
> prenu" mean, "lo prenu poi=A0ba zvati le tersla=A0.u lo prenu poi mi djun=
o lo
> du'u ke'a zvati le tersla" [(those persons that will be at the party)
> whether-or-not (those persons I know will be at the party)]?

(You need "ku'o" in front of ".u")

I'm not saying "le" can't be used that way. I only say I don't know
how "le" is meant to be used.

> That's the way
> I'm defining le to refer to in this instance.=A0 I may not people to enum=
erate
> who they are, but I can still (mentally) refer to them as "whoever will b=
e
> at the party".=A0 That's the whole point of "le".=A0=A0It basically screa=
ms
> "context dependant".

The usual explanation for "le broda" is that it is used to refer to
certain things that the speaker has in mind (and that the speaker
chooses to describe as broda), not to whatever things fit a certain
description that the speaker has in mind (but that the speaker chooses
to describe as broda instead). Do you agree there is a difference
bewteen those two?

In any case, all this stuff about "le" has nothing to do with my
point, which was the comparison of "ro da" and "ro prenu".

> "ro prenu" is more qualified,
> and hence more restrictive than "ro da".

In any domain of discourse that includes things that are not prenu, of
course it is. If the domain of discourse includes only things that are
prenu, it isn't more restrictive.

You seem to be saying that for you there is no such thing as a domain
of discourse, or alternatively, that there is one and only one domain
of discourse that applies to any and all utterances. Am I
understanding you correctly?

mu'o mi'e xorxes

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