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Date: Sun, 05 Apr 2015 23:30:01 +0200
From: selpa'i <seladwa@gmx.de>
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Subject: Re: [lojban-beginners] A few more sentences
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la'o me. Erik Natanael Gustafsson .me cusku di'e
> On Sunday, April 5, 2015 at 2:25:28 PM UTC+2, selpa'i wrote:
>      > ".i go'i fa lo vi stuzi noi bu'u ke'a zifre lo ka ckaji ma kau
>     kei fa mi
>      > .e do .e mi'o"
>
>     It could be translated back into English as:
>
>     "this place, where me, you and we are free to have whatever properties
>     that we do"
>
>     The first {fa} is {go'i}'s x1, which is the previous sentence's x1.
>
> I really like that way of expressing it! So the second fa replaces the
> ke'a in the noi?

No. The {ke'a} is tagged by {bu'u}. It says that the event expressed in 
the relative clause happens "where ke'a is", in other words, it happens 
at "this place" (lo vi stuzi).

{bu'u ke'a zifre fa mi} is the same as {bu'u ke'a mi zifre}. Both mean 
"where I am free".

> Why should I reference the previous sentence and replace its x1? Is it
> just a poetical way of phrasing? Does the phrase work without it (".i lo
> vi stuzi noi bu'u ke'a zifre lo ka ckaji ma kau kei fa mi .e do .e mi'o")?

Well, you can do that. It's just a sumti, which is fine. I simply 
decided to make it a complete bridi, which requires a selbri. For that I 
copied the selbri from the previous sentence, but changed the x1.

Here is a simpler example:

    do nelci lo xrula .i go'i fa lo mamta be mi
    "You like flowers. So does my mother."


By using {go'i} in the original sentence, I copied {ka'e kampu mi'o} (so 
I didn't have to repeat it verbatim). The original English sort of 
contains an implicit selbri, specifically an implicit {go'i}, so I made 
it explicit in my translation (but this is not the only option).

mi'e la selpa'i mu'o

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