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From: 0x90 <emilwuerfl@gmail.com>
Subject: [lojban-beginners] Is it possible to use be directly followed by bei?
Message-ID: <ceb39847-a6fd-e816-2a94-ae21af60f3d9@gmail.com>
Date: Thu, 14 Jul 2016 18:24:08 +0200
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Is it possible to use be directly followed by bei, indicating that the 
sumti followed by be is omitted(=zo'e)? I know it is possible to do the 
same with "be fi", but I think it sounds better. I think it should be 
possible since the bei makes it obvious that the one between be and bai 
was elided... However, no of the parsers I tried accepted this.

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