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To: lojban-beginners@googlegroups.com
From: Ilmen <ilmen.pokebip@gmail.com>
Subject: [lojban-beginners] {za'a}
Message-ID: <c3326b76-d120-3d5b-55ec-f1904a03f61e@gmail.com>
Date: Sun, 14 May 2017 19:27:51 +0200
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coi ro do

Here is the BPFK definition of the evidentiality particle {za'a}:

/=E2=80=9CEvidential. Used to express direct observation or perception as t=
he=20
source of information or idea. Said perception may be visual, but need=20
not be. See also zgana, lanli, the preface.=E2=80=9D/

I would like a clarification on the following point:

Does {za'a} imply that the event described by the sentence is witnessed=20
at the very time of utterance, or does it simply means that the=20
information comes from direct personal experience (directly/sensorily=20
witnessed), even if in remote past? Is {za'a pu broda} nonsensical?

I interpret the official definition as not requiring the perception to=20
be concurrent with the utterance of the sentence, but at least some=20
other Lojbanists seem to interpret it the other way. Maybe it is due to=20
differing interpretations of the word "direct" in the definition.

Which interpretation is correct?

Thank you in advance.
=E2=80=94Ilmen.


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    <p>coi ro do<br>
      <br>
      Here is the BPFK definition of the evidentiality particle {za'a}:<br>
      <br>
      <font color=3D"#330099"><i>=E2=80=9CEvidential. Used to express direc=
t
          observation or perception as the source of information or
          idea. Said perception may be visual, but need not be. See also
          zgana, lanli, the preface.=E2=80=9D</i></font><br>
      <br>
      I would like a clarification on the following point:<br>
      <br>
      Does {za'a} imply that the event described by the sentence is
      witnessed at the very time of utterance, or does it simply means
      that the information comes from direct personal experience
      (directly/sensorily witnessed), even if in remote past? Is {za'a
      pu broda} nonsensical?<br>
      <br>
      I interpret the official definition as not requiring the
      perception to be concurrent with the utterance of the sentence,
      but at least some other Lojbanists seem to interpret it the other
      way. Maybe it is due to differing interpretations of the word
      "direct" in the definition.<br>
      <br>
      Which interpretation is correct?<br>
      <br>
      Thank you in advance.<br>
      =E2=80=94Ilmen.</p>
    <p><br>
    </p>
  </body>
</html>

<p></p>

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