Re: [lojban-beginners] {ja'e} vs {seri'a}, {semu'i} &c.

[mudri <jammyatjammy@gmail.com>]

These two replies are contradictory, though I'm more convinced by the second. So which more specific "therefore" would be used in the first answer's example?

On Saturday, 3 November 2012 07:16:16 UTC, tijlan  wrote:
> On 2 November 2012 17:34, mudri <jammya...@gmail.com> wrote:
> > Can someone explain {ja'e} to me, and why I shouldn't use one of the "because" modals in its place?
>
> {ja'e} comes from {jalge}, which says that x1 is an outcome of x2,
> without specifying the nature of "because". {ja'e ___} refers to the
> consequence; use {se ja'e ___} for the antecedent.
>
> {ri'a}, {mu'i}, {ki'u}, {ni'i} ... are more specific. Also their x1 &
> x2 are the inverse of {ja'e}'s; it's {ri'a ___}, not {se ri'a ___},
> that refers to the antecedent.
>
> You can replace {se ja'e} with a more specific modal:
>
>   lo bloti cu spofu se ja'e lo nu janli
>   The ship is broken, from (as a result of) the collision.
>
>   lo bloti cu spofu ri'a lo nu janli
>   The ship is broken, physically from (as a physical effect of) the collision.
>
>
> mu'o

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