Re: [lojban-beginners] Is it possible to use be directly followed by bei?

[Michael Turniansky <mturniansky@gmail.com>]

  I think, from a strictly parsing perspective, I can see maybe one problem.  How would you parse the following:

  broda be lo brode be bei lo brodi?

  Is that (broda be (lo brode be bei lo brodi)) or

(broda be (lo brode be) bei brodi)?

  I think, by not having a definite end to the argument of a be, you open yourself open to questions like that.  

           --gejyspa

 

On Thu, Jul 14, 2016 at 12:24 PM, 0x90 <emilwuerfl@gmail.com> wrote:

Is it possible to use be directly followed by bei, indicating that the sumti followed by be is omitted(=zo'e)? I know it is possible to do the same with "be fi", but I think it sounds better. I think it should be possible since the bei makes it obvious that the one between be and bai was elided... However, no of the parsers I tried accepted this.

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