On Thu, Aug 19, 2004 at 04:19:42PM +1000, Tristan Mc Leay wrote:
Why is it that [I] isn't an allophone of /i/? For most people in the
world, they're close enough that it's hard to distinguish anyway...
(I'm a native English speaker, and out of context, I find hearing [i]
vs [I] difficult; [I] is many times easier for me to produce than [i]
though.)
/me blinks.
You find the "i" in "bit" hard to distinguish from the "ee" in "beet"?
That's just bizarre to me. What dialect? I'm pure American English.