[lojban-beginners] Re: jbocradi cimo'o

[Jorge Llambías <jjllambias@gmail.com>]

On 1/4/06, HeliodoR <exitconsole@gmail.com> wrote:
> > The final consonant always indicates that it's a cmevla. One
> > of the quirks of the grammar is that bare cmevla, without {la}
> > or any vocative, are allowed at the beginning of an utterance.
>
> u'e .ua
> Where can I read more about that? Or could You explain it
> better pls, illuminate it with an example?

I can't find anything about it mentioned explicitly in CLL, so it
is likely that this is not explained anywhere. If so, you could
only have known about it by examining the formal (YACC,
EBNF or PEG) grammar.

If I recall correctly, the idea was that a bare cmevla at the
beginning would work as a vocative, but as far as I can tell
nobody actually uses this "feature".

mu'o mi'e xorxes