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[lojban-beginners] Re: Differently-shaped vocal equipment (was: Re: Re: lojban-beginners Digest V6 #97)
Actually, lojban does have a "th" sound. It's one valid
pronounciation of the y'y ('), because the "h" sound as martin points
out, doesn't exist in many languages, like French, Spanish, and Russian.
"th" does exist in at least Spanish and Russian (at least in borrowed
words for the latter. Not sure if it exists in native words), some
Sepharidic Hebrew dialects, and Greek. I don't know if it occurs in
French, although I think not.
--gejyspa
-----Original Message-----
From: lojban-beginners-bounce@lojban.org
[mailto:lojban-beginners-bounce@lojban.org] On Behalf Of Karl Naylor
Sent: Thursday, June 21, 2007 12:24 PM
To: lojban-beginners@lojban.org
Subject: [lojban-beginners] Re: Differently-shaped vocal equipment (was:
Re: Re: lojban-beginners Digest V6 #97)
I appreciate the information. I recall reading that the reason Lojban
has no "th" phoneme is that the majority of the world's population
cannot produce it; is this due to conditioning too, then?