RE: [lojban] How would you translate this?

["Jorge Llambias" <jjllambias@hotmail.com>]

> >But, can Lojban play this trick at all?
>
>In Sindarin, it actually has "friend" as mellon, rather than vellon, the
>form it would take if it were to be the object of the verb - meaning that 
>it
>is only a little bit cleaner than the English. Lojban, however, would use:
>
>ko cusku doi pendo = speak, friend
>ko cusku zo pendo = say "friend"

Are you saying that Lojban's d-i vs. z is much cleaner than
Sindarin m vs. v? The English distinction is also very clean,
be it in writing or in speech.

>This would have to be about an order of magnitude above "ractu cafmi'a" if
>anyone can come up with an answer.

It seems to me that there is no problem at all. I found the
passage. The inscription itself is not ambiguous. The first
time Gandalf mistranslates it and says {ko cusku doi pendo}
Later he corrects himself and says "the translation should
have been" {ko cusku zo pendo}. Where is the difficulty?

mu'o mi'e xorxes


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