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Re: [lojban] Q



In a message dated 4/16/2001 3:48:29 PM Central Daylight Time,
jcowan@reutershealth.com writes:


>> That doesn't work, because the false value doesn't have a referent
>
> Whoa!  If the true value (Truth) has a referent, then so has Falsehood.

Sure.  But I affirm that neither one has a referent.


Plausible, since they don't seem to be linguistic items in any sense.  Still,
why insist that the *false one* has no referent, rather than just saying that
*they* don't?  That sounds suspiciously like thinking that the referent of
False is the complement of the referent of True, which is, in turn, all that
there is -- also (except for the first part) a plausible position (usually,
in this one, the referent of True is everything that is face on and the
referent of False is everything that is arse-first).