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Re: [lojban] The Knights who forgot to say "ni!"



In a message dated 8/29/2001 12:08:10 AM Central Daylight Time,
xod@sixgirls.org writes:



> Why use {ce'u} at all for {ni}? {ni} can only refer to one amount, so there
> would be no problem at all with using {ke'a}.



Because there is a difference between {ni ce'u prami kei} and {ni prami
ce'u kei}. However, it is true that I really don't know what {ni ce'u
prami ce'u kei} means.




If we don't know what any of them mean (and I think we don't really) then how
do we know that they are different, other than graphically.

I take {ni} with {ce'u} to be -- as {ce'u} suggests -- a function that gives
different values for different replacements of {ce'u}, so {ni} with and
without {ce'u} exactly parallel {ka} and {du'u} -- in that limited sense.  
The function types are very different.