In a message dated 9/6/2001 8:00:14 PM Central Daylight Time,
a.rosta@dtn.ntl.com writes: When others want to say {X se li'i ce'u broda}, I want it to be {X se li'i Now, can X have an experience of brodaing in general, not of something brodaing. I guess I don't think so and so find {li'i ce'u broda} not to make sense. Must that something be X? Clearly not, but that is an especially common case, I would think. So the first temptation is surely to leave the first place of {broda} bare in that case -- and this is almost certainly what happened in the little bit of use {li'i} has gotten over the years. Popping that up the {ce'u}, on the analogy of {ka}, or to {zo'e}, on the analogy of {du'u}, seem equally misguided. Being explicit is, we now know from the toehr cases, the best policy, so we need "X" there or its anaphor. Would {ri} worik in most cases? Creating a new class of this situation (are there going to be others?) seems excessive. |