Re: [lojban] a construal of lo'e & le'e

[pycyn@aol.com]

In a message dated 10/28/2001 6:17:06 PM Central Standard Time, rob@twcny.rr.com writes:

Is it not true that if you use {da} in one sentence and again in
another, without using {da'o}, it refers to the same thing?

For example, is this correct?
{.i reda cu kanla mi .i da blanu}

Officially not, but then we get hung up on the meaning of "sentence" for Lojban and also on the general permission to slop over {i} when "it is clear what is intended"  -- rampant glorkosis.  To be safe, say {ije} instead of {i} the second time (why the first, by the way?).  (Sentence in lojban" all between a bare {i} /beginning of speech/{ni'o}/... and the next bare {i}/end of speech/{ni'o}/...)