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Re: [lojban] Re: Usage of lo and le



Sorry, I re-read and understand what you're illustrating (examples of
how le and lo are used, though there's no definite definition that I
was expecting). In my counterexamples, I'll use primarily the
cmavo-list/my definition of  "lo".

On 5/5/06, Jorge Llambías <jjllambias@gmail.com> wrote:
Let's do an experiment. This is the definition of "the" from dictionary.com,
and my comments on where "the" corresponds to {le} and where it does not:

> Used before singular or plural nouns and noun phrases that denote
> particular, specified persons or things: the baby; the dress I wore.

Yes, that's what {le} is for.

As opposed to what? "any"? "all"?

"the baby" can be illustrated by {lo pa cifnu}, "any baby" by {pa lo
cifnu} (more specifically, by {pa lo ro cifnu}). But then, just {lo
cinfu} and some context should be enough.

> Used before a noun, and generally stressed, to emphasize one of a group
> or type as the most outstanding or prominent: considered Lake Shore Drive
> to be the neighborhood to live in these days.

No, {le} won't do for that.

Neither would {lo}, correct?

> Used to indicate uniqueness: the Prince of Wales; the moon.

{le} can be used there, but it won't really indicate uniqueness.
{lo pa} is better to indicate that.

Uniqueness can be indicated using po'o, or whichever one it is. {?? ti
nobli turni la uels.}, where ?? is a placeholder for whatever is used
to say "{ti} and only {ti} fits here".

{lo pa} or {le pa} could both work. {lo nobli turni (la uels...)}
would be in reference to the actual prince of wales. We know that
there is only one through context, so {pa} is probably not needed. If
I had a pet chimp, I could happily refer to him as {le nobli turni (la
uels...)}, "the prince of wales has destroyed the curtains yet again".
If I had a pet chimp and I was delusional, and thought that he was the
actual prince of wales, I would refer to him using {lo nobli turni (la
uels...)}.

> Used before nouns that designate natural phenomena or points of the
> compass: the weather; a wind from the south.

No, plain {lo} will do.

Why? By the current definition, won't "the weather" be referred to
using {le}? (Which indicates that {le} is used when you've encountered
the thing, that is, when it was directly relevant to your experience.)

> Used as the equivalent of a possessive adjective before names of some
> parts of the body: grab him by the neck; an infection of the hand.

Can be used there, but plain {lo} will do.

Again, if you're talking about a specific neck, don't you mean {le}?
"an infection of the hand" would be better expressed as x3 of {xance
bilma}.

> Used before a noun specifying a field of endeavor: the law; the film industry;
> the stage.

No, plain {lo} is better.

{loi}, if we're talking about laws, stages, or film industries as a
mass. "Join the film industry" = "[you, {ko}] participate in (the mass
of all things that are the film industry)". "The law is on my side" =
"(that which is the mass of all things that are laws) is on my side".

> Used before a proper name, as of a monument or ship: the Alamo; the Titanic.

No, that's {la}.

I agree.

> Used before the plural form of a numeral denoting a specific decade of a
> century or of a life span: rural life in the Thirties.

Doubtful. Plain {lo} would probably do.

{la fiftis.} is I think the most direct translation, given the
capitalization of, say "the Fifties". You'd have to get into some
rather large sentances if you wanted to use {lo}.

> Used before a singular noun indicating that the noun is generic: The wolf
> is an endangered species.

No, that's {lo}.

{loi labno cu [cease typeof danger-facer]} is more appropriate, I think.
{lo'e labno cu [cease typeof danger-facer]} - when you want to imply
that the typical wolf might not breed, and his line will die out.

> Used before an adjective extending it to signify a class and giving it the
> function of a noun: the rich; the dead; the homeless.

No, that's {lo}.

"the rich are destroying this country" - {loi ricfu}, "the dead fill
the afterlife-place" - {loi morsi}.

> Used before an absolute adjective: the best we can offer.

That's {lo}.

Why not le?

What's the gismu for best? x2 of {[best typeof] friti}.

> Used before a present participle, signifying the action in the abstract:
> the weaving of rugs.

That's {lo nu}.

Why not le?

> Used before a noun with the force of per: cherries at $1.50 the box.

No, that needs some other construction.

Yeah. It's also very interesting, in that it's a nounish relationship.
Kinda like jdima, but the relationship would be:
[thing] is priced at [price] for [quantity]
Looks like English is making some progress.

So {le} is "used before singular or plural (no difference in Lojban) nouns
and noun phrases that denote particular, specified persons or things:
the baby; the dress I wore." All the other functions that "the" has in English
are left to {lo} or to something else.

This relates to the difference between lo, lo'e, and loi, and not the
difference between lo and le.