Re: [lojban] Re: A (rather long) discussion of {all}

["Jorge Llambías" <jjllambias@gmail.com>]

On 7/11/06, Maxim Katcharov <maxim.katcharov@gmail.com> wrote:
> Are these 'dual/trial numbers' as pervasive as the "1 vs >1"
> distinction in those languages?

The grammatical distinction in English (and the other languages I'm familiar
with) is not exactly between 1 and >1, but rather between 1 and non-1. We
do use the plural for <1 too: "zero zebras", "0.5 kilograms", "minus one
degrees", etc.

mu'o mi'e xorxes