Re: [lojban] The important distinction between "cmene" and "cmevla"

["'Wuzzy' via lojban" <lojban@googlegroups.com>]

> All cmevla are cmene,
This is a bold claim. Proof it to me.

Remember that “cmene” does *not* focus on morphology. It does not even
focus on the language. I didn’t even go into “zoi” quotes in my essay.
A cmene is only a cmene if it is actually a name /given to something by
someone/.
On the other hand, “cmevla” *does* care about morphology. So these
concepts probably do not mix so nicely. It is actually not so easy to
claim that all cmevla are cmene. Unless you can proof it.

And analogies don’t proof anything.

> but not all cmene are cmevla.
OK, I buy this one. This is obviously correct:
 “lu donald dak li'u cmene gi'enai cmevla”

… iff we can assume that someone named something or someone “donald
dak”.

> cmevla are the specific type of cmene that end in a consonant and
> glottal stop.

This is true for Lojban, but not for all languages. OK, we talk about
Lojban now, fine. But this sentence is still an oversimplification of
cmevla. Cmevla have other properties in Lojban, for example: they can
use the diphtongs “iy” and “uy” and they can all the vowel pairs with
a “y” in it, like “a'y”. No other word class in Lojban can do that.

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