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Re: [lojban] Logos Initiative





2014-09-24 1:49 GMT+04:00 And Rosta <and.rosta@gmail.com>:
Gleki Arxokuna, On 23/09/2014 17:18:
2014-09-23 18:03 GMT+04:00 And Rosta <and.rosta@gmail.com <mailto:and.rosta@gmail.com>>:
    Gleki Arxokuna, On 23/09/2014 13:44:
        2014-09-23 16:28 GMT+04:00 And Rosta <and.rosta@gmail.com <mailto:and.rosta@gmail.com> <mailto:and.rosta@gmail.com <mailto:and.rosta@gmail.com>>>:
             Gleki Arxokuna, On 16/09/2014 17:57:
             Second, the "clearly defined connection" between the dictionaries would work only if for each word in the one language there is a word in the other language that always translates it, and this one-to-one translation is explicitly stated.

             The only way this is going to happen is if the two languages are deliberately designed to be intertranslatable.

        Since this project is/would be based on Loglan and Lojban then it is implied.

    I don't think it is implied.

The Logos Initiative clearly states the sources.

What document are you looking at?

May be it doesnt even matter since no one works on this project.
1. "in part a reconciliation between Loglan and Lojban"  from the first message of this thread.
2. "The Initiative has been created for the purpose of reconciling the differences between these two languages..." from https://github.com/LogosInitiative/logla

I can't find anything relevant, and what I have seen in passing does not imply that being "based on" or "sourced from" Lojban will entail intertranslatability with Lojban. Indeed, anything intertranslatable with Lojban would immediately suffer the very failings of Lojban, when the project is intended to remedy Lojban's failings.

What are its failings? The issue https://github.com/LogosInitiative/logla/issues/1 is fixed by constant expanding of the lexicon like it is done in all languages with lexicons open to expansion.

That is, you want a logical language to yield a logical formula, not to yield a translation into Lojban, which does not yield a logical formula.

        english is a tonal language.

    It isn't a tone language. Whether tone plays any role at all in English (i.e. intonation) is debatable; it's generally held that it does, and I think that it probably indeed does, but the evidence is not overwhelming.

Indeed. Indeed?

Indeed. Do the rules that specify licit English sentences include specification of tone? My answer is "Probably yes, but that isn't as obvious as most people assume it is", tho I say that on the basis only of a cursory study of English intonation.

Let's wait for the author who replied to tonality of Toaq Dzu to reply themselves.
 


        i wonder if there are non tonal languages except lojban.

    There are thousands that are as tonal as Lojban is.

Most known examples?

The large majority of other invented languages besides Lojban are not tone languages, and of those, only a tiny minority have any specification for intonation. I suppose you might argue that Lojban's putative audiovisual isomorphism means it cannot have intonatioal rules, whereas for most invented languages intonation rules are merely unspecified rather than forbidden. If you were to argue that then I will concede your point. (My own loglang has tone but -- by design -- not intonation.)

only if intonation is formalized in lojban




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