RE: [lojban] 2 maths questions

["And Rosta" <a.rosta@dtn.ntl.com>]

Jorge:
> la and cusku di'e
> 
> >2. The set of even numbers and the set of integers are both infinite,
> >but how does one express the notion that the latter is bigger, because
> >there are twice as many integers as even numbers?
> 
> That erroneous notion can be expressed, for example, as:
> 
>    lei relmeina'u lei kacna'u cu xadba le ka kaclai
>    The even numbers are half the integers in number.

Did you realize that I am trying to formulate a statement that is both
true and expresses this idea?
 
> >In what property does the set of integers exceed the set of even numbers?
> 
> Apparent numerosity?

Something more objective. Jimc mentioned privately that set inclusion
might afford a solution, but it wouldn't generalize to say, the way
multiples of 2 are more 'numerous' than multiples of 5, but the former
don't include the latter.

> >I presume
> >there is a well-known answer to this question, but the best I can
> >do on my own is something along the lines of "frequency" or
> >"distributional density" (within the set of integers/numbers/whatever);
> 
> Certainly in any given finite interval (with more than one number
> anyway) the integers outnumber the evens, but not in total.
> 
> >if that is the way to go, then how does one actually say it in Lojban?
> 
>   lei kacna'u lei relmeina'u cu zmadu le ka denmi

Is "denmi" sufficient? Is denmi in the appropriate part of number space a
mathematically sensical notion? Can one analogously express the frequency 
of trains as denmi in time?

--And.