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Rape contd.
Criminal sex is not always rape and rape is not always criminalized: sodomy,
fellatio and cunnilinguus, bestiality, etc. in the first case; shariyya,
where it is a tort, not a crime (except in special cases), on the other (some
versions of shariyya disagree on this, I gather).
Force is not necessary for rape -- the drug cases show this, unless slipping
someone a mickey counts as a use of force (and {bapli} is about fuzzy enough
to let such an argument get started). Nor is it sufficient -- see the
dominatrix case from ken (forthcoming to the list). A fortiori, the threat of
force should not play a role either.
But it does seem to, in the sense that one may give permission or, at least,
cooperatively accede to demands ("spread legs") under a threat, so that at
least first order willing the event occurs. But one is inclined to think
that it is still rape in the absence of second order willing (a good reason
for Lojban to be short on volitional concepts -- they're a mess).
Only genuine consent (at least second order willing -- maybe third) can
prevent it being rape when violence plays a role. Without the intimation of
violence -- or other abnormal influences (hypnosis rather than chloral
hydrate) -- probably given permission, maybe even just overt accession to
suggestion, is enough. Or maybe just failure to protest when protest is
appropriate. And these latter seem to work in less controversial cases than
rape.