Re: [lojban] Re: translation exercise

["Jorge Llambias" <jjllambias@hotmail.com>]

la jrc cusku di'e

> Apparently "before" is ambiguous in that it can signal preemption, or
> temporal precedence, or both.

I think the preemption is not really a part of "before". If you
say that X happens before any Y happens, and it is in the nature
of X that its happening prevents Y from happening, then naturally
X happening before Y preempts Y from happening. But this only
works when we already know that X will prevent Y, and it is just
a consequence of the temporal precedence. If the meaning of
preemption was part of "before", then you should be able to say
"X before Y" meaning that X preempts Y when normally X would
not preempt Y. Can you think of any such case?

mu'o mi'e xorxes


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