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[lojban] Re: Aesthetics
On Sat, 7 Dec 2002, Craig wrote:
> Because there is a greater phonic contrast between [T] and [f] or [s] than
> between [h] and [x], to me.
This is like a Japanese person saying insisting that r and l sound alike.
Meanwhile, Kemitic has ', [x], and two distinct sounds BETWEEN them!
> Are we agreed that if you can actually say it, the lateral pronunciation
> would be more distinct?
No. I hear that Welsh ll as closer to thorn and s than h is to [x], when
[x] is done with gusto.
> Besides, ' capitalizes to h (eg in selma'o names). I think I'll start
> capitalizing all my ns, and watch the complaints roll in. I use a [N]
> pronunciation in many cases anyway...
What does this mean? What sound is [N]?
--
Sphinx of black quartz, judge my vow.