[lojban] Re: Lojban for Beginners lesson 12 answers

[Pierre Abbat <lojban-out@lojban.org>]

On Sunday 12 June 2005 05:41, Opi Lauma wrote:
>  I do not understand why transformation ?o? into ?a? is ?reduction?. For
> example in German ?sch? should be pronounced like Lojban?s ?c? and this
> sound is not reduction of three sounds (?s?, ?c?, and ?h?) this sound
> (Lojban?s ?c?) has nothing common with sounds corresponding to letters
> ?sch?. It is a rule of reading. The same story is with the first ?o? in {la
> moskov}. It stays there only because of historical reasons and has nothing
> common with sound ?o?.

The stress on the syllable is reduced, the effort put into pronouncing the 
vowel is reduced, and the number of distinct vowels in an unstressed syllable 
is reduced compared to a stressed one.

Another use of "reduced", which puzzles me, is "reduced to writing". When the 
sound values of a previously undeciphered writing system are figured out, is 
it "oxidized to speech"?

phma
-- 
A man found gold and left a rope; but he who found
No gold he left did tie the rope around.