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[lojban] Re: ralju bangu be le gligu'e
One of the PR problems with saying that Lojban
(and Loglan before it) are logical languages,
with their grammars based on that of Formal
Logic, is that it so often just ain't true. Here
is a case: logically the expression asks for the
English land one(s) among the principal languages
of countries. Grammatically, however (in Lojban,
that is -- in Logic the form matches the
meaning), it asks for the principal one(s) among
the languages of the English land. In this
case, it is fair to assume that the referent is
going to be the same, but obviously this will not
always be the case. And much of the discussion
in CLL seems (it is often hard to be sure) to say
that it is the logical meaning that is intended
when there is doubt -- to the dismay of anyone
trying to write a semantics of the language.
(Note that the definition of {bridi} is already
at variance with the grammar here.)
--- Jorge Llambías <jjllambias@gmail.com> wrote:
> On 5/4/06, Yanis Batura <ybatura@mail.ru>
> wrote:
> > In Wikipedian article
> http://jbo.wikipedia.org/wiki/glico_bangu
> > there is a phrase {ralju bangu be le
> gligu'e}.
> > My question is, is {ralju} a seltau for the
> tertau {bangu be le
> > gligu'e}, or {be le gligu'e} is an attached
> sumti for the selbri
> > {ralju bangu}?
>
> The former. For the latter, you can say {ke
> ralju bangu ke'e
> be le gligu'e}. {be} attaches a sumti to the
> single tanru unit
> to its left.
>
> {bangu be le gliselgu'e} would be more
> appropriate, since it is the
> people who use the language, not the country.
>
> mu'o mi'e xorxes
>
>
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>
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