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Re: mine, thine, hisn, hern, itsn ourn, yourn and theirn (was[lojban] si'o)
- To: lojban@yahoogroups.com
- Subject: Re: mine, thine, hisn, hern, itsn ourn, yourn and theirn (was[lojban] si'o)
- From: "Bob LeChevalier (lojbab)" <lojbab@lojban.org>
- Date: Mon, 10 Sep 2001 19:54:32 -0400
I sent this without the last couple of lines which conclude the story. Sorry.
At 11:37 AM 8/24/01 -0400, pycyn@aol.com wrote:
In a message dated 8/24/2001 2:32:21 AM Central Daylight Time,
lojbab@lojban.org writes:
(damn, I miss the real and useful {me}),
When we went along with TLI on the change in me, we had determined that
there was an easy alternate way to do the old me. Why is it unsatisfactory?
How does it go exactly?
I remember a thread a few weeks ago that went on for
some time trying to find a way to say "mine" (the first fully functional
concept of the average human infant -- I wonder if anyone has ever tested
whether "I" is first understood at what can safely use what is mine).
Eventually the thread came up with something that worked for the specific
case, but was not generalizable. So, the "easy alternate way" is either
hard, doesn't work or is not widely known. "x1 is subject to a nonessential
defensible and defeasible claim to privileged association or use by x2" is
what in Lojban?
association: srana
which as the history lesson comments below is also one translation for the
old "me".
(History lesson for newbies. JCB invented (presumably stole from someone in
the anonymous hordes) this notion (not so fully defined) and assigned it to
{me}.
It was Scott Layson, I thought, but I can't find the source. I remember
the line about the "me-shaped hole in the language".
The first printed mention of me was in the February 1978 TL2:114
where JCB defined it as
"X is a part/manifestation/characteristic of the designated thing giving
examples
(translated to Lojban valsi) of
ko'a me ko'e
x1 is a manifestation of x2
le mela djenis pluta
the Jenny-route (i.e. the route associated with Jenny)
ko'a me la socrates
x1 is a socrates
ta me levi bloti
that is a piece of this boat
ta me la kraisler
That is a Chrysler (providing we designate the entire output of the
Chrysler Corp as la kraisler - which JCB said was motivated by its
then-usefulness with me.
He then stated
roda robu'a zo'u go da me loi bu'a gi da bu'a
so that me and loi mutually destruct.
By TL 4/3 of 11/80, pg 20-21, (pc's supplement, so he is stuck with his own
pronouncements %^)
"
... Any argument can give rise to a predicate: a sign for the property of
being specifically related to the thing named by the argument. The device
for this is the LW me attached directly to the front of the first word of
the argument ...
... It is not possible to specify, in isolation, the exact property to
which such predicates refer, or the exact relation to the named
object. These must be deciphered from the particular context.
"
Unfortunately in the next lengthy paragraph, pc went on to cite several
examples of use of me, and the semantic meaning to be inferred, but all of
the examples were of the me phrase as the seltanru (modifier) of a
modifier-modificand tanru, such as
me la kraislr karce, which does not really tell us what me means.
Now because of this vagueness, when pc and I discussed incorporating "me"
in Lojban in 1987, I came up with a place structure of:
x1 pertains to [sumti] in property/aspect x2
not noticing that this was essentially the place structure of srana.
Jump ahead to 1992, when pc's "replacement" logician, Russell Holmes wrote
the article on the TLI Web site
http://www.loglan.org/Lodtua/lodtua-92-3.html
from which I extract:
The issue which I will try to tackle in this column can be vaguely
summarized as the problem of "sets". There are a number of different kinds
of ways of referring (or appearing to refer) to several objects at once
(thus "putting things together".) In English, these are handled in an
extremely sloppy fashion (as will be seen in examples below); in Loglan,
they must be handled in a clear and unambiguous fashion. This, of course,
is easier said than done.
We start with a typically horrible example:
· ?Da bie le mrenu
proposed as meaning
· X is one of the men I have in mind
BIE is the infix predicate of set membership: "X bie Y" means "X is an
element of set Y". The speaker seems to want to say "X is an element of
the set of men I have in mind". But the speaker has not succeeded in
saying this: what he has said is "X is a member of the man I have in mind
(or is a member of each of the men I have in mind)". An even worse example
of the same phenomenon is
· ?Da bie le setci:
does this mean "X is an element of the set I have in mind (or of each of
the sets I have in mind)" (the correct interpretation) or "X is one of the
sets I have in mind" (the interpretation parallel to the incorrect
interpretation proposed for the sentence above)?
The problem here is a confusion between plural reference (reference to
more than one individual) and reference to a set of individuals. It is
true that LE MRENU may have plural reference: it may refer to Tom, Dick
and Harry, for example. In this case, the sentence DA BIE LE MRENU will
mean DA BIE LA TAM, ICE DA BIE LA DIK, ICE DA BIE LA HERI (X is a member
of Tom, X is a member of Dick, and X is a member of Harry). Since we do
not think of the three gentlemen as being sets, we do not know what to
make of this sentence. What the speaker wanted to say was "X is a member
of {Tom, Dick, Harry}", and the problem is that LE MRENU cannot be made to
refer to the set {Tom, Dick, Harry}, but only to each of its elements
individually.
There is a way to say what the speaker originally wanted to say: we can
use the ME operator of predification to build the predicate ME LE MRENU,
which means "is one of the men I have in mind"; in our present context,
this means "is either Tom, Dick, or Harry". We can then use the LEA
operator of set formation to build LEA ME LE MRENU, which means (hey,
presto!) "the set of those men I have in mind (the ones designated by LE
MRENU)", or, in the present context, {Tom, Dick, Harry}. We can then say
· Da bie lea me le mrenu,
which really does mean
· X is one of the men I have in mind
Back to pc:
Like most of his "inventions," he overused this one to the point where
it was unclear just what it meant. At some point it was decided to give it a
precise meaning again, keeping the grammar as a two-place brivla. The
meaning hit upon was "x1 is one of the things referred to by x2," either
because that was a pretty good approximation to its most common use at the
time or because there was a felt need to do something to prevent people from
translating "John is a man" as {la djan du lo ninmu}, which, while both
grammatically and logically correct -- and thus better than the average first
translations -- was very bad style and probably arrived at not by analysis
but by simply copying the English word for word. Something was then found to
take on the old job, but I don't know what that something is -- and am
apparently not alone in this ignorance.)
This change was never documented, unless you are referring to the above by
Holmes.
We eventually adopted the Holmesian "me" after consulting with pc, because
Cowan was convinced that it was more logically sound. As reference, look at
http://balance.wiw.org/~jkominek/lojban/9406/msg00044.html
http://balance.wiw.org/~jkominek/lojban/9407/msg00121.html
and other messages in those threads for where we first started talking
about switching to Holmesian "me".
Finally, Cowan came down in favor of the change with
http://balance.wiw.org/~jkominek/lojban/9511/msg00101.html
And we decided that we could use srana for the other meaning of "me"
lojbab
--
lojbab lojbab@lojban.org
Bob LeChevalier, President, The Logical Language Group, Inc.
2904 Beau Lane, Fairfax VA 22031-1303 USA 703-385-0273
Artificial language Loglan/Lojban: http://www.lojban.org