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ko'a
coi rodo
How long does ko'a keep the same value? If I introduce {le brode goi ko'a}
and later say {le broda goi ko'a}, can it be assumed that the most likely
meaning is {ko'a brode je broda}. To *humanly* reinforce that meaning, I
might choose the second to be {ko'a goi le broda} ; but both in theory have
the same semantic meaning.
The reason that I asked this was for the translation of Hamlet, 1:1 (see
lojban-beginners, [hamlet] .e [hamlet remoi pagbu]), where Horatio talks
about "this thing" which Barnardo later refers to as " 'tis (but our
fantasy)". Unfortunately Horatio did not deign to add a {goi ko'a}. Can I
say [it-1 is but our fantasy] and then go on to say [dreaded sight goi
it-1] .e [it-1 goi apparition], with the it-1's all referring to the same
it?
mi'e greg
--
"I have a proposal for the international community:
help us build an execution block ; then we will be able to use our stadium
for playing football"
*the afghani foreign minister*
"Last night's speech [by Bush, 20/9/01] was one of the great speeches of the
English language"
*some official bootlicker*