Rob wrote:
> Is it not true that if you use {da} in one sentence and again in
> another, without using {da'o}, it refers to the same thing?
>
> For example, is this correct?
> {.i reda cu kanla mi .i da blanu}
I replied "yes"
pc replied:
#Officially not,
pc is right. I was wrong (due to focusing on a different issue).
--And.