Bible translation style question

[Pierre Abbat <phma@webjockey.net>]

Adam puts x1 before the brivla, but puts the x3 of a verb of saying (the 
listener) before x2 (the quotation):

37:8. .i lei bruna be .ibu cu cusku fi .ibu fe lu xu do nobli mi gi'a turni 
mi li'u
they-said to-him his-brothers "kinging? you-king above-us if ruling you-rule 
in-us"

I put the sumti in their specified order unless for some reason such as 
emphasis, order of quantification, or combining bridi they have to be 
rearranged:

3:1. .i sy cusku lu xusai le cevni cu cusku lu ro purdi tricu zo'u ko naku 
citka li'u li'u le ninmu
he-said to the-woman indeed but said the-God "not you-eat from-all tree 
the-garden"

Mark puts the Lojban words in an order as close as possible to the Hebrew:
1:4. .i zgana fa la cevni le gusni fi'o se jinvi loza'i xamgu
he-saw the-God (ddo) the-light that good

I figure that the selbri are in the order they are in for a reason, and 
putting two or more FA tags (except in omission - I prefer two FAs to two 
zo'es) or two or more SE conversions sounds unnatural. What do you think?

phma