Re: [lojban] Re: before or after

[Michael Turniansky <mturniansky@gmail.com>]

On Mon, Feb 22, 2010 at 4:28 PM, Dag Odenhall <dag.odenhall@gmail.com> wrote:

UI describe the preceding word, or the grammatical scope of that
structure. {pe'a mi donri} is all figurative: the scope is the scope
of the invisible {i}. {mi donri pe'a} scopes to {donri} and {la pe'a
donri cu donri} scopes {la donri} as would {la donri ku pe'a}. {pe'a}
also has a rafsi, which can't end a lujvo due to ending in a
consonant: {mi pevdo'i} probably means the same as {mi donri pe'a}.

On Mon, Feb 22, 2010 at 7:45 PM, Luke Bergen <lukeabergen@gmail.com> wrote:
> I could swear that I've seen people use {pe'a} to say that the following
> word is figurative but I see in chapter 13 of The Book that it actually
> marks the previous word as figurative.  This has come back to bite me a
> couple of times before with other words.  Is there some good general rule to
> make it easier to remember when something modifies the following word vs the
> previous word?  Are all of the selma'o at least consistent within
> themselves?  (i.e. if one UI* marks the previous word do ALL UI* mark the
> previous word?)
>  ki'e mi'e pafcribe

  What you may be confusing it with is the words from the BAhE selma'o, ba'e and za'e,  which describe the NEXT word as emphasized or nonce usage, respectively. (Which begs the question of what does "ba'e pe'a" means, but that's a question for another time.
          --gejyspa