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Re: [lojban] pe BAI <sumti> on tense markers
- To: <lojban@yahoogroups.com>
- Subject: Re: [lojban] pe BAI <sumti> on tense markers
- From: Invent Yourself <xod@sixgirls.org>
- Date: Mon, 27 Aug 2001 16:30:27 -0400 (EDT)
- In-reply-to: <01082710370708.01399@neofelis>
On Mon, 27 Aug 2001, Pierre Abbat wrote:
> I've figured out what "pe BAI" means, as opposed to "be BAI", in at least one
> instance, "ba'i".
>
> a. ko'e zbasu le dinju lo staku be seba'i lo rokci
> (The brick was made of something else instead of stone, maybe.)
> b. ko'e zbasu le dinju lo staku pe seba'i lo rokci
> (The tower was made of brick instead of of stone.
Why do you see these as being any different?
This is the right grammar -
> I was going to say "construction", but it wasn't the right construction,
> because God was displeased with it.)
> c. ko'e zbasu le dinju lo staku seba'i lo rokci
> (The making of the building was a substitute for a stone. This is unclear,
> and might be interpreted as b or as "ko'e zbasu le dinju, peseba'i lo rokci,
> le staku".)
>
> To say "instead" without saying instead of what, one can say "peseba'iku".
>
> In the Book (or at least the webpages) there is a sentence in which a BAI
> phrase semantically modifies not a verb, not a noun, but a tense marker:
Verb? Noun?
> le verba mo'i ri'u cadzu le bisli ma'i vo'a (Chapter 10, verse 8.3)
>
> Since "ma'i vo'a" modifies "mo'iri'u", not the bridi as a whole, it should be
> "le verba mo'iri'uku pema'i vo'a cadzu le bisli". This, however, is
> ungrammatical, at least according to jbofi'e. Is there a reason why it won't
> work?
>
> phma
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