Re: [lojban] Re: Why does sei work the way it does?

[Jonathan Jones <eyeonus@gmail.com>]

{sei} is more like {to} than {lo}, lindar.

On Mon, Nov 29, 2010 at 1:00 PM, Lindar <lindarthebard@yahoo.com> wrote:

Disagreed, wholly, entirely, and completely, with every fibre of my
being. =D

It's the same reason we have be/bei. If {lo klama la .bastn. ku} were
grammatical, then {ku} would be required -every time-, and then -every
fa'orma'o- would be required -every time- because they would all have
to obey the same rule. THAT is why it is the way it is.

-----THE MORE YOU KNOW----⋆

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-- 
mu'o mi'e .aionys.

.i.a'o.e'e ko cmima le bende pe lo pilno be denpa bu .i doi.luk. mi patfu do zo'o
(Come to the Dot Side! Luke, I am your father. :D )

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