Re: [lojban] na'e vs no'e/to'e

[Jorge Llambías <jjllambias@gmail.com>]

On Sat, Dec 4, 2010 at 1:15 PM, tijlan <jbotijlan@gmail.com> wrote:
>
> It seems to me that "na'e blabi" means either "no'e blabi" or "to'e blabi".
> "na'e" doesn't seem to have a unique explicit meaning other than being
> ambiguous about the no'e/to'e distinction.

That's like saying that "danlu" is ambiguous about the mlatu/gerku
distinction. It is not ambiguous just because it covers both.

> If not the latter (i.e. the ambiguity of "na'e" is useful), why is it that
> "na'e" has no explicit attitudinal equivalent?

You might be interested in reading this reform proposal by lojbab from
many many years ago, and a couple of reactions to it:

http://groups.google.com/group/lojban/browse_thread/thread/96534721bc2b3131/ecc1a14eaef16b0f

>"UInai" (opposite negation)
> corresponds to "to'e SELBRI", not "na'e SELBRI" (e.g. "uinai" means "to'e
> gleki", not "na'e gleki"), and "UIru'e" (weak affirmation) corresponds to
> "je'aru'e SELBRI", not "na'e SELBRI" (e.g. "uiru'e" means "je'aru'e gleki",
> not "na'e gleki").

UIja'ainai might work, if construed as UI(ja'ainai) and not as (UIja'ai)nai.

mu'o mi'e xorxes

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