With respect to the ambiguous "we":
The Tupi language, spoken by Brazilian Indians, is an example of a
language that has three distinct "we"s:
* "îandé", corresponding to {mi'o}
* "ore", corresponding to {mi'a} or plural {mi}, and
* "asé", corresponding to {ma'a}.
You will have trouble arguing that the mandatory disambiguation is a
heavy burden on the speaker. The concept of {do} is very clear on
one's mind, and so, the distinction of {mi'o} vs. {mi'a} vs. {ma'a},
regardless of his mother tongue.
And what about "you", which is ambiguous between {do} and {do'a} (even
when plural)?
With respect to {joi} vs. {jo'u}:
I guess this is part of the post-xorlo phenomenon of avoiding masses
where unnecessary. I am particularly pro {jo'u}, which is simple and
general. Anyway, such a change would be for CLL 2.0...
mu'o
mi'e .asiz.
On 16 June 2013 02:11, la arxokuna <
gleki.is.my.name@gmail.com> wrote:
> First let me show an extract from the loglan dictionary.
>
> mio (p) we/us/ourselves, in the "I/me and others independently" sense, the
> 1st 3rd person multiple variable. Equivalent to 'mi, e da'. Cf. mu/mo for
> the "you and I/me" sense of we/us, and muu/muo for the "you and I and
> others" sense of we/us.
> mu (p) we/us/ourselves, in the "you and I/me jointly" sense, the 1st 2nd
> person set variable. Equivalent to 'mi ze tu'. Cf. mo for the "you and I/me
> independently" sense of we/us, miu/mio for the "I and others" sense of
> we/us, and muu/muo for the "you and I and others" sense of we/us.
> miu (p) we/us/ourselves, in the "I/me and others jointly" sense, the 1st 3rd
> person set variable. Equivalent to 'mi ze da'. Cf. mu/mo for the "you and
>
I/me" sense of we/us, and muu/muo for the "you and I and others" sense of
> we/us.
> mo (p) we/us/ourselves, in the "you and I/me independently" sense, the 1st
> 2nd person multiple variable. Equivalent to 'mi, e tu'. Cf. mu for the "you
> and I/me jointly" sense of we/us, miu/mio for the "I and others" sense of
> we/us, and muu/muo for the "you and I and others" sense of we/us.
>
> What one might notice first is that there is no equivalent to "mio/miu"
> which corresponds to English "we".
>
> "we" is defined in Wiktionary as "The speakers/writers, or the
> speaker/writer and at least one other person." so the meaning is pretty
> clear.
> However, the CLL says "English-speakers often suffer because they cannot
> easily distinguish “mi'o” from “mi'a”" which is indeed true. I don't
> understand why Lojban doesn't have "we" in the sense English,
Chinese,
> Russian, Arabic, Hindi and Spanish have it (although i suggested mi'ai a few
> days ago).
>
> Now to the main issue. Even if we look at the remaining "mu/mo" we'll see
> that Lojban has only one of them.
>
> The CLL says (regarding KOhA3)
>
> "All of these pro-sumti represent masses. For example, “mi'o” is the same as
> “mi joi do”, the mass of me and you considered jointly."
> This means we can't talk say "Each of us carries the piano" vs. "We as a
> mass carry the piano" as (at least what Randall Holmes says) a mass should
> not be converted into the conjunction of its component parts by any logical
> operator because strictly speaking it shouldn't come with a privileged
> partition
>
> However, jvs has two definitions, the second one (by selpahi) defining
> {mi'o} as "mi jo'u do" entered in December 2012. I don't remember
any
> discussions of this issue at that time.
>
> I don't know if it should be {ro mi'o bevri} vs. {lu'o mi'o bevri} or {ro
> lu'a mi'o bevri} vs. {lu'o mi'o bevri}.
>
> So should we change the CLL to say it means {jo'u}, not {joi}?
>
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