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Re: [lojban] Please, the best explanation of {le} vs. {lo}



Too true.  A fuss-budget would insist that there needs to be a notice of change of salience to make a move of this sort.  It might, of course, be tone of voice in spoken usage, but in written it needs to be something more (or maybe less).  So, we have {bi'u} for the second {lo gerku}, or we mark the second sentence as a generalization,  so the reference more or less automatically shifts to the supremum.  I think it is generally more likely that using {lo greku} again so soon -- rather than an anaphoric pronoun or a sentence join -- signals that something other than simple continuation is going on.  That is part of the reason that the earlier examples in this thread seemed so difficult. they were unnatural in their intended meaning.


From: selpa'i <seladwa@gmx.de>
To: lojban@googlegroups.com
Sent: Saturday, June 22, 2013 9:14 AM
Subject: Re: [lojban] Please, the best explanation of {le} vs. {lo}

la .pycyn. cu cusku di'e
> This seems essentially backward prractice to me.  {lo karce} refers to
> the salient car(s).  After it has been used o9nce, that forces the
> car(s) there referred to to be the salient ones.

It doesn't have to, however. Consider:

    "I just saw a dog. Dogs are so cute!"
    mi pu zi viska lo gerku .i lo gerku cu tai ci'omle

Nothing forbids one to use {lo} twice with different referents each time. (Or one could say that the referent is always the same, it's Dog.)

It might not be super obvious in such a case if the second {lo gerku} is the same as the one I just saw, but it's nevertheless "legal" to say it like that.

mu'o mi'e la selpa'i

   


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